Hi everyone,
I had a story related to me this weekend.
A player in the rough hit at his ball and another hidden below came flying out, his own ball apparently didn't move. He was given a two shot penalty, is that correct?
Any ideas?
Cheers,
Michael

HI Michael,

I would think the 2SP was for playing a wrong ball. Pretty harsh IMO.

I would not penalise the player at all.

Your question wether it is correct, rather depends on what was said and done at the time.

IMO, he should be allowed to play his original ball, but the stroke should count,and no 2SP.

So, if for example, the player played from the tee into the rough, he would be playing his third stroke at his OB

Michael, it really does depends on what was said and done at the time. However, based on what you said that would be my ruling. See D7-2/7 and D15/2.

Regards, Ron.

Michael,
I agree with Ron, the player did not make a stroke at a "wrong ball" even though he actually succeeded in hiting a wrong ball. The definition of "stroke" includes the "intention" of striking the ball, seeing as there was no "intention" to hit the wrong ball, a "stroke" has not been made at it!
Ron has quoted the rel dec 15/2
Don

Where do you play golf Pennard

I wonder if we are going to veture into the realms of "wrong mushroom" here?
Could be interesting!
Don

Where do you play golf Pennard